What's the first wrong statement in the proof below that $ \triangle EFC \cong \triangle EBC$ $ \; ?$ $ \overline{BC} $ is parallel to $ \overline{DF} $. This diagram is not drawn to scale. $A$ $B$ $C$ $D$ $E$ $F$ Givens $ \angle CEF \cong \angle BED$ $, \ $ $ \angle CFE \cong \angle DBE$ $, \ $ $ \overline{CF} \cong \overline{BD}$ $, \ $ $ \angle ECF \cong \angle ACB$ $, \ $ $ \overline{CE} \cong \overline{AC}$ $, \ $ and $\ $ $ \angle CEF \cong \angle BAC$ Proof $ \triangle ABC \cong \triangle EFC$ because ASA $ \overline{BC} \cong \overline{CF}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle EBD \cong \triangle EFC$ because AAS $ \overline{BE} \cong \overline{EF}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle EBC \cong \triangle EFC$ because SSS
Try going through the proof yourself: write down the givens, and then see if they justify the next step for the reason given. Then do the same thing for the next step, and the next, until you run into something that you can't justify, or you finish the proof. There is no wrong statement in this proof.